Questions about Spanish Supremacy
I have some questions, just off the top of my head. As we all know, Canada and the U.S. have a lot of Indian reservations.
The question germinated in my mind as I observed, in particular, all of the controversy surrounding Hispanic (as in, a Spanish-speaking person living in the US, especially one of Latin American descent) immigration to the U.S.
It seems to me that Spain and Portugal, just like Britain and France, "stole" the land they now live on, from indigenous peoples. Stuff I learned about Pizzaro and Cortez in public school, grade five or six, and what they did to the indigenous people's of South America and Mexico used to make me sick to my stomach.
Yet, I hear absolutely nothing about *Hispanic Supremacy*. Even more bizarrely, the progeny of the villainous conquerers of Peru and Mexico who stole their countries from the Incas and the Aztecs, are often touted as heroes by the left as they come to increasingly occupy the lands "stolen" by the British and French(!)
I am confident enough to say that the reason why so many treaties with natives were broken by northern whites was due, in part, to the fact that treaties had been made in the first place. And like all agreements made with any government in the history of the planet, those treaties (promises) were eventually broken to some degree.
Which finally brings me to my questions.
1 - Did the Spanish invaders make treaties with the indigenous people of the lands they occupied and....
2 - Are there any Indian reservations in Mexico or places further south?
If you know the answers to these questions, please respond in the comment section below.
In the meantime, you might want to acquaint yourself with another one of many stories of lands stolen by militarily superior ethnic groups.
In case no one took on my challenge, I used a non-google search engine to find my own answers. Yes, there are Indian reservations in South America.